part-ii/2015-13/ #419
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The first part is bookwork. For the second part, SpoilerBy the first part we can consider $$ \mathbb{ P}( X_1 , ... , X_n \ge x) \le n \mathbb{ P}(X_1 \ge x) \le n \text{exp}(x-x\log x) =: p_n$$ and now choosing $$ \log p_n \le \log n - (1+\varepsilon ) \frac{\log n}{\log \log n} \times ( \log \left( \frac{\log n}{ \log \log n } \right) - 1 ) \to 0$$ because the |
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Part II 2015 Applied Probability: Paper 3, Section II, K
https://questions.tripos.org/part-ii/2015-13/
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